PANCE Cardiology Practice Test

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• Which drug class can cause leg edema?
• Calf pain should always make you think of which diagnosis?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia?
• A 75-year-old male with chest pain, dyspnea, and syncope has a harsh systolic murmur at the right second intercostal space. Which accompanying finding would you expect?
• The rhythm described as irregularly irregular with a narrow QRS is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Pheochromocytoma commonly presents with which combination of symptoms?
• Which condition presents with flank pain, hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass?
• Posterior wall infarction is suggested by which ECG finding?
• A midsystolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is most characteristic of which condition?
• Which statement best describes ST-segment elevations in STEMI?
• Which medication class treats both hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia?
• Which electrolyte disturbance is most associated with a U wave on the ECG?
• Opening snap on auscultation is most often associated with which arrhythmia?
• Tall peaked T waves indicate which electrolyte disturbance?
• Loud, harsh murmur heard along the left sternal border is most characteristic of which defect?
• Which statement best defines normal blood pressure in adults?
• Mobitz I is also known as which of the following?
• What is the most common cause of non-ischemic dilated cardiomyopathy in the United States?
• Virchow's triad consists of stasis, vascular injury, and hypercoagulability. Which statement is accurate?
• Cocaine use is most commonly associated with which type of angina?
• Where is the mutation that causes hypertrophic cardiomyopathy typically located?
• Sinus bradycardia is defined as a sinus rhythm with a rate of
• In dilated cardiomyopathy, what is the pattern of ventricular remodeling?
• Best location to hear problems with the aortic valve?
• The most common cause of an atrial septal defect?
• Which organism is commonly suspected in endocarditis among intravenous drug users?
• An EKG shows a regular rate of 50 BPM, narrow QRS, no visible P waves. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the definition of cardiomyopathy?
• Which condition characteristically presents with a systolic murmur that decreases in intensity with squatting?
• Which statement is true about the PROVe mnemonic for Tetralogy of Fallot?
• A BNP level below which value rules out CHF?
• Which test is used to confirm endocardial involvement in suspected endocarditis?
• A patient presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the back. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Which auscultation finding is most consistent with mitral regurgitation?
• What is the treatment goal for a diabetic patient with hypertension?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six P's of an ischemic limb?
• CK-MB appears when after onset and lasts how long?
• Which radiographic sign is classically associated with coarctation of the aorta?
• Which valve is best heard at the second right intercostal space?
• Harsh systolic murmur along the right sternal border. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the blood pressure target for patients with diabetes?
• Atrial flutter involves two atrial rate patterns. Which statement accurately describes the typical rate ranges for Type I and Type II flutter?
• What is the first step in evaluating a patient with a blood pressure of 135/85?
• Which condition is defined by the 6 P's: Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, and poikilothermia?
• For non-black patients, including those with diabetes, initial treatment should be with which of the following?
• An elderly patient presents with dyspnea, angina and exertional syncope. The EKG is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
• After cardiac stenting, how long should aspirin and clopidogrel be continued?
• Which medications are associated with hyperkalemia?
• Which option is historically used to palliate Tetralogy of Fallot?
• A high-pitched decrescendo murmur at the left upper sternal border that increases with inspiration is most consistent with which valvular lesion?
• Premature activation of ventricular myocardium from an ectopic focus is
• In evaluating a patient with elevated BP, which scenario would prompt starting BP medications rather than lifestyle changes alone?
• Which statement best describes early features of dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Orthostatic hypertension is defined as what change when moving from supine to standing?
• The classic hemodynamic sign associated with cardiac tamponade is?
• What is the size of a normal aorta?
• The EKG shows irregularly irregular narrow QRS waves. Diagnosis?
• The bundle of Kent is best described as which of the following?
• Define stage 1 hypertension.
• Which condition is typically treated with high-dose prednisone and diagnosed by temporal artery biopsy?
• Osler nodes are associated with which condition?
• Which procedure is used to correct Tetralogy of Fallot?
• Which of the following is an example of a congenital heart disease?
• If BP goal is not met after 1 month what is the next step?
• Lateral wall infarction is suggested by ST depressions in which leads?
• Define a normal blood pressure.
• Which class of cardiac medications should be avoided in patients with asthma?
• What is the most common congenital heart disease?
• Sinus arrhythmia is described as
• A holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border that intensifies with inspiration most likely represents which condition?
• A diastolic decrescendo murmur best heard at the left sternal border is most consistent with which lesion?
• Which statement is true about pericarditis?
• Definite endocarditis under the Duke criteria is defined as which combination?
• At what blood pressure should a patient without comorbidities be treated for hypertension?
• What imaging modality is considered the gold standard for diagnosing valvular vegetations in infective endocarditis?
• Occlusion of which artery most commonly causes a lateral wall myocardial infarction?
• A soft high-pitched blowing diastolic murmur along the left sternal border heard with the patient seated and leaning forward after exhaling is characteristic of which condition?
• An RSR prime in leads V1 or V2 indicates which conduction abnormality?
• Which statement best describes Normal Sinus Rhythm?
• Which imaging finding is classic for coarctation of the aorta?
• Tall peaked P waves on an electrocardiogram are most strongly associated with enlargement of which chamber?
• Which drugs are rate-control calcium channel blockers?
• Where is disease of the mitral valve best heard on auscultation?
• Indolent infection of abnormal valves with less virulent organisms such as Streptococcus viridans describes which form of endocarditis?
• Which congenital defect is classically associated with fixed splitting of the second heart sound and a systolic ejection murmur best heard at the left second intercostal space?
• For a patient with BP 135/85 and an ASCVD risk under 10%, what is recommended?
• The most common cause of CHF is?
• Which thiazide-like diuretic is given as an example for hypertension management?
• An RSR' pattern in leads V5 or V6 on an electrocardiogram indicates which conduction abnormality?
• In acute pericarditis, which EKG finding is typical?
• Tachy-brady syndrome refers to
• In hypertensive emergency, after initial reduction, what is the target blood pressure within 2-6 hours?
• Which medication is used to improve cardiac contractility when other medications have been optimized?
• Define first-degree AV block.
• Posterior wall infarction is suggested by which ECG pattern?
• What is considered the gold standard imaging test for venous thrombosis?
• A positive echocardiogram showing vegetation, abscess, or new partial dehiscence of a prosthetic valve constitutes which Duke criterion?
• Which diuretic is most associated with hyperkalemia?
• Fever of 38.0°C (100.4°F) or higher is categorized as which Duke criterion?
• Which midsystolic click at the apex indicates which condition?
• Which accessory pathway is associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
• An Osborn or J wave on EKG is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Ischemic cardiomyopathy is best described as cardiomyopathy due to what underlying disease?
• In normal sinus rhythm, the impulse reaches the ventricles via which conducting network?
• Which area is best heard for tricuspid valve pathology?
• Definitive treatment for atrial flutter?
• An Osborn wave on the electrocardiogram is most characteristic of which condition?
• A diastolic decrescendo murmur heard at the right second intercostal space is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• In shock, which sign is commonly observed?
• Which finding is most consistent with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
• The cuff bladder used for blood pressure measurement should be what percentage of the upper arm circumference?
• Which EKG leads are used to diagnose anterior wall myocardial infarction?
• Which organism is described as the most common cause of endocarditis in this material?
• Rheumatic fever most commonly affects which valve?
• Orthostatic hypotension criteria include a drop in systolic BP and a heart rate rise within 2-5 minutes of standing. Is this statement true?
• Malignant hypertension is best described as a severe form of hypertension characterized by encephalopathy or nephropathy with papilledema. Which option best matches this description?
• What is the treatment for Mobitz II second-degree AV block?
• Which condition features sudden onset tearing chest pain radiating to between the scapulae, with diminished pulses and a widened mediastinum on chest imaging?
• Which statement about ST-segment elevations in STEMI is correct?
• Which valve is best heard at the second intercostal space on the right side of the chest?
• Loop diuretics cause which electrolyte disturbance?
• Hemorrhages in the fingernail beds in suspected endocarditis are called?
• What heart rate defines bradycardia?
• Pulsus paradoxus signals which condition most strongly?
• Which condition is treated with indomethacin?
• A wide pulse pressure with a blowing diastolic decrescendo murmur at the right 2nd intercostal space indicates which lesion?
• What is the gold standard for diagnosing myocarditis?
• Which murmur is described as harsh, loud, medium-pitched systolic and best heard at the 2nd to 3rd left intercostal space, often decreasing with inspiration?
• Which of the following is a minor Duke criterion?
• Which diuretic is associated with hyperkalemia?
• Which ECG leads are used to diagnose an anterolateral myocardial infarction?
• A CXR shows a '3' sign with notching of the ribs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Loud S1 with a diastolic rumble at the apex is most consistent with which lesion?
• Which option is NOT listed as a lifestyle modification for hypertension management?
• Which range defines elevated blood pressure?
• Cardiac medication used to help with cardiac contractility after you have optimized most of the other cardiac medications?
• A harsh holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border is most consistent with which defect?
• Hypertension not responsive to conventional treatment with hyperpigmented skin and truncal obesity suggests which hormonal disorder?
• A young boy presents with elevated blood pressure in the arm and no femoral pulses palpable. Which diagnosis is most likely?
• The most common cause of secondary hypertension?
• Which murmur radiates most notably to the carotids?
• Which cardiac medication is known to cause gynecomastia as a side effect?
• What is the pathologic hallmark of infective endocarditis?
• A sawtooth pattern on the electrocardiogram is most characteristic of which rhythm?
• Non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction is described by which of the following?
• Which of the following is a cyanotic congenital heart disease?
• A diastolic low-pitched decrescendo rumble with an opening snap indicates which valvular lesion?
• Which diastolic murmur is best heard at the lower left sternal border?
• Tetralogy of Fallot is the only cyanotic congenital heart disease on the NCCPA Blueprint. Which congenital heart defect is classically cyanotic?
• Where is disease of the tricuspid valve best heard?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most characteristic of which condition?
• A U wave on an EKG is most commonly associated with which electrolyte abnormality?
• Tetralogy of Fallot typically presents in infancy with cyanosis and a harsh murmur best heard at which location?
• In a hypertensive emergency, the blood pressure should be reduced by no more than what percentage within 1 to 2 hours?
• A 60-year-old man presents with sudden severe back pain and hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass is found on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• In dilated cardiomyopathy histology, which pattern is typical?
• ST segment depressions greater than 1 mm on an electrocardiogram most likely indicate which condition?
• In a patient with pulsus paradoxus, which triad of diagnoses should you consider?
• A systolic harsh ejection murmur is best heard at the right upper sternal border and radiates to the neck and apex. Which valve disease is most consistent with this description?
• Osler nodes are painful nodules found on which sites?
• The diagnosis of infectious endocarditis uses the Modified Duke criteria. Which statement correctly identifies the criteria name?
• Which of the following is a component of Tetralogy of Fallot?
• In a patient with a GFR of 25 and hypertension, which diuretic is preferred?
• Which statement accurately describes the left ventricle in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Which drug can cause lupus-like syndrome and pericarditis?
• Tender, pulsatile abdominal mass is classically associated with which condition?
• Which electrocardiographic finding is classic for right bundle branch block?
• Which valve is best heard at the second right intercostal space?
• Does dilated cardiomyopathy have systolic or diastolic dysfunction?
• A young man who experiences sudden death while playing sports is most likely due to which condition?
• Which condition commonly presents with diaphoresis, tachycardia, agitation, and hypertension?
• What is the treatment goal for a patient with CAD and hypertension?
• In patients taking ACE inhibitors, which laboratory tests are most important to monitor for renal function and electrolyte balance?
• Which condition presents with jaw claudication and scalp tenderness, with ESR often markedly elevated and diagnosed by temporal artery biopsy?
• Which description best fits the murmur of a patent ductus arteriosus in infants, including its timing and location?
• Which medication class is contraindicated in asthma and may cause impotence?
• A patient presents with edema, stasis dermatitis, brown hyperpigmentation, varicosities, and ulcers above the medial malleolus. The workup includes an ankle-brachial index and duplex ultrasound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• What is the recommended blood pressure target for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
• Which sequence correctly describes the path of impulse in normal sinus rhythm from origin to ventricles?
• Which condition shows dull pain, erythema, induration of a vein, and a palpable cord, with venous duplex ultrasound as the gold standard for diagnosis?
• Non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is characterized by which ECG finding?
• Anterior wall infarction is best suggested by Q waves and ST elevations in which leads?
• Which Tetralogy of Fallot feature is responsible for the aorta being positioned over the VSD and receiving blood from both ventricles?
• Common cause of a junctional rhythm?
• Which leads are used to diagnose an anterolateral MI?
• Which organism is most associated with prosthetic valve endocarditis?
• An 82-year-old patient complains of headaches and jaw claudication. Diagnosis?
• Which of the following is a component of Tetralogy of Fallot?
• The best test for diagnosing congestive heart failure?
• Best location to listen for problems with the pulmonary valve?
• Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is defined as a rhythm arising above the ventricles with heart rate exceeding 100 bpm. Which rhythm is most commonly responsible for SVT?
• A short PR interval with a delta wave on electrocardiogram is diagnostic of which condition?
• Which condition presents with intermittent claudication and an ankle-brachial index less than 0.9, with arteriography as the gold standard for diagnosis?
• Are ulcers from arterial insufficiency painful or painless?
• What is the gold standard treatment for STEMI best within 3 hours of symptom onset?
• Dilated cardiomyopathy is best described as what combination of changes?
• Catastrophic complications of myocardial infarction include which of the following?
• Which side effect is most characteristically associated with ACE inhibitors?
• Which medication class is contraindicated in pregnancy?
• Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a normal sinus rhythm with a heart rate
• In the PROVe mnemonic for Tetralogy of Fallot, what does the letter O stand for?
• In the MONA protocol for acute coronary syndrome, which option is included?
• Which diagnosis matches acute chest pain with evidence of myocardial necrosis but without acute ST-segment elevation or Q waves on ECG?
• In suspected infective endocarditis, the initial target of echocardiography is to identify, characterize, and localize which finding?
• Which condition presents as chest pain or discomfort during activity or emotional stress that is relieved by rest?
• What heart rate defines tachycardia?
• The '3 D's' associated with tamponade describe which findings?
• Dressler syndrome is best described as pericarditis that occurs after which event?
• Which condition is most classically associated with a water bottle-shaped cardiac silhouette on chest X-ray?
• Sinus block is best described as
• Which medication class is associated with cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia?
• Dilated cardiomyopathy shows which histologic features?
• Virchow's triad includes which three factors?
• Acute endocarditis is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which chest X-ray finding is classically associated with cardiac tamponade?
• Which vasopressor is listed as a treatment option in shock?
• What ejection fraction is typical in cardiomyopathy with increased left ventricular dimension?
• A patient with severe pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting up and leaning forward most likely has which condition?
• What is an initial management step listed for hypotension in suspected cardiogenic shock?
• What is the therapeutic INR range after mechanical valve replacement?
• Which two types of BP meds are considered most effective in black adults?
• Blockage of which artery causes an anterior wall myocardial infarction?
• Which class most commonly causes leg edema?
• The most common type of cardiomyopathy is which?
• Which class of antihypertensive is contraindicated in asthma?
• Which lab result increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?
• Giant cell arteritis is associated with which condition?
• Which diuretic is most commonly associated with gynecomastia?
• Which biomarker remains elevated longest after myocardial infarction?
• Tilt table testing is used in the diagnosis of which condition?
• Treatment for a patent ductus arteriosus in neonates?
• Transient ST-segment elevations with normal troponin are most characteristic of which condition?
• Which statement best describes the overall approach to BP management in patients without comorbidities?
• Dressler's syndrome is best described as pericarditis occurring after which event?
• Hypertensive urgency requires reduction of blood pressure within a few hours and without acute target organ damage.
• Which murmur is described as harsh and radiates to the carotids?
• If BP goal is met, when should you reassess the patient?
• A continuous 'machinery' murmur heard best at the upper left sternal border is characteristic of which condition?
• What is the gold standard diagnostic test for peripheral artery disease?
• Sinus pause/arrest is defined by which of the following findings?
• Hypertensive emergency is defined by the need to reduce blood pressure within 1 hour due to target organ damage.
• Which congenital condition requires antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis according to the material?
• In IV drug user with a new murmur and fever, what is the most likely diagnosis?
• Most common cause of sudden cardiac death?
• What is the blood pressure goal for the general population aged 60 years or older?
• Which ECG leads correspond to the inferior wall of the heart?
• Which ectopic beat typically presents with a wide QRS complex and no preceding P wave?
• What is first-line medical treatment for acute pericarditis?
• Which of the following is a hallmark of atrial fibrillation?
• Vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions are categorized as which Duke criterion?
• Which condition is associated with a continuous murmur?
• Which antihypertensive can cause lupus-like syndrome and pericarditis?
• What is the gold standard for diagnosis of giant cell arteritis?
• A high pitched holosystolic murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border that may decrease with inspiration corresponds to which condition?
• Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a fall in systolic blood pressure by more than 10 mm Hg during which phase of respiration?
• Which nutritional deficiency is implicated in alcohol-related dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Which of the following is a common cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which wall is typically more hypertrophic?
• Which population is most susceptible to restrictive cardiomyopathy according to the material?
• Which inotropic agent is commonly used in cardiogenic shock?
• Temporal artery biopsy is used to definitively diagnose which condition?
• Which mechanism best explains atrial fibrillation?
• A blowing holosystolic murmur at the apex with a split S2 is most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Inferior wall infarction is indicated by Q waves and ST elevations in which leads?
• Stage 2 hypertension is defined as which blood pressure threshold?
• Giant cell arteritis is associated with which of the following conditions?
• According to the CDC, what BMI range is considered normal?
• Right atrial enlargement can be seen with which of the following conditions?
• A continuous machine-like murmur is most characteristic of which condition?
• Premature atrial beats occur when an ectopic atrial focus fires early. Which statement best describes the P waves in these beats?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six P's of an ischemic limb?
• Which lesion is classically described as a holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex with radiation to the axilla?
• Autonomic dysfunction in diabetes is a common cause of which condition?
• Boot-shaped heart on chest X-ray is indicative of which condition?
• Which defect is commonly treated with indomethacin to close a persistent ductus arteriosus?
• Which medication is used to pharmacologically close a patent ductus arteriosus?
• Cutaneous evidence of septic emboli in infective endocarditis is classically known as?
• What is damaged in dilated cardiomyopathy and what does it result in?
• A midsystolic click heard on auscultation is most characteristic of which condition?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which chamber shows the primary changes?
• Which combination defines orthostatic hypotension changes after standing?
• Which of the following is listed as an immunological minor criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis?
• Paradoxical pulse is defined as which of the following?
• A harsh systolic murmur best heard at the right second intercostal space with radiation to the carotids is most consistent with which condition?
• Which scenario would prompt starting BP medications rather than lifestyle changes alone?
• Which of the following is NOT a feature of Tetralogy of Fallot?
• A mid diastolic rumbling murmur at the left lower sternal border with an opening snap is most consistent with which lesion?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is commonly seen in which diagnosis?
• Which condition involves coronary artery vasospasm causing transient ST elevations not due to a clot?
• What is a direct toxic effect of alcohol on cardiac tissue contributing to cardiomyopathy?
• Which diuretic can cause hyperkalemia?
• A rhythm described as an early wide QRS complex with no preceding P wave followed by a slight pause is most consistent with which finding?
• Which class can treat hypertension and BPH?
• Which diagnosis is characterized by substernal chest pain with ST-segment elevations >1 mm in more than two contiguous leads and evidence of myocardial necrosis?
• Which of the following is a major criterion for endocarditis?
• Which statement describes the relationship between dilation and ejection fraction in dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Which antihypertensive class is known to cause lupus-like syndrome when used chronically?
• In an ECG where the AV node provides the pacing rhythm, the expected heart rate falls in which range?
• Which toxicity is most associated with junctional rhythm?
• Which procedure is used to definitively treat atrial flutter?
• Regular P waves and regular QRS complexes with no apparent correlation between them indicate which diagnosis?
• Define an elevated blood pressure.
• Which of the following is a classical inferior wall MI lead grouping?
• Which of the following is not listed as a cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• Which condition has dilated tortuous superficial veins with lower extremity pain after sitting or standing, venous stasis ulcers, and ankle edema, treated with leg elevation and compression stockings?
• A sinus pause or arrest is defined as an interruption of at least how many seconds?
• Which hyperlipidemia medication is most likely to cause flushing?
• What is the therapeutic INR range after mechanical valve replacement?
• S3 heart sound is most commonly associated with which condition?
• What is a key mechanism by which alcohol contributes to dilated cardiomyopathy?
• Which of the following is a reversible cause of sinus bradycardia?
• Which biomarker appears at 4-8 hours, peaks at 12-24 hours and lasts 7-10 days?
• Opening snap is most closely associated with which valvular lesion?
• Which of the following is NOT a major Duke criterion?
• Following a myocardial infarction, which medication is preferred to treat hypertension?
• Pulsus alternans is best associated with which EKG finding?
• Which rhythm disturbance is suggested by an early beat with a normal PQRS complex followed by a brief pause and continued normal rhythm?
• What is the number one specific cause of dilated cardiomyopathy overall?
• The heart in dilated cardiomyopathy is often described as resembling a what?
• Persistent asymptomatic SBP > 220 and/or DBP > 125 typically corresponds to which hypertensive category?
• Which organism is commonly associated with acute endocarditis in intravenous drug users?
• Which statement accurately reflects the duration of dual antiplatelet therapy after stent placement?
• Diastolic rumbling with an opening snap is characteristic of which valvular disease?
• Which medication is most commonly associated with edema as a side effect?
• Beck's triad is classically associated with which condition?
• First-degree AV block is diagnosed by which ECG finding?
• An early diastolic decrescendo murmur best heard along the left sternal border suggests which lesion?
• Beck's triad for cardiac tamponade includes which combination of findings?
• What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
• Which murmur is best heard at the left lower sternal border and increases with inspiration?
• What is observed on echocardiography in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• Occlusion of which artery is most commonly associated with a lateral wall myocardial infarction?
• Which lipid-lowering agent is classically associated with flushing as a side effect?
• What is the treatment for giant cell arteritis?
• In AVNRT, the electrocardiogram typically shows which features?
• First-line treatment for torsades de pointes is which therapy?
• Which imaging modality provides the most direct assessment of heart structure and function in suspected CHF?
• Initial treatment for myocardial infarction is described by the acronym MONA. Which option correctly represents this protocol?
• Which cardiovascular finding is most associated with coarctation of the aorta?
• Subacute endocarditis is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Prinzmetal's angina is also known as which type of angina?
• In the six P's of limb ischemia, which term describes limb temperature that mirrors the environment?
• The three major criteria for endocarditis include which items?
• Which condition is most classically associated with an opening snap heard on auscultation?
• What happens to the myocardium in restrictive cardiomyopathy?
• What is the gold standard for diagnosing coronary artery disease?
• Which artery supplies the anterior wall and is commonly occluded in anterior wall MI?
• Which organism is most commonly associated with subacute endocarditis?
• Which condition is primarily managed with leg elevation and compression stockings?
• Severe chest pain with ST elevations and negative troponins is most consistent with which condition?
• Virchow's triad includes stasis, vascular injury, and which of the following?
• Which of the following conditions can cause right atrial enlargement?
• In a patient on an ACE inhibitor, which two labs should be monitored?
• Retinal hemorrhages with pale centers in infective endocarditis are known as which finding?
• A holosystolic murmur best heard at the apex and radiating to the axilla is most consistent with which valvular lesion?
• Which condition presents with unilateral lower-extremity swelling and is typically evaluated with D-dimer, venous duplex ultrasound as first-line imaging, and venography as the gold standard imaging test?
• Which antihypertensive is associated with cough and hyperkalemia and is contraindicated in pregnancy?
• Which condition requires antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis?
• Drug of choice for acute edema?
• Which inotropic agent is used in cardiogenic shock?
• Which diuretic is less effective when the GFR falls below 30?
• In evaluating ACE inhibitors, which scenario represents a contraindication?
• Stage 1 hypertension is defined as which range?
• A diastolic rumble at the apex that is accentuated in the left lateral decubitus position is most characteristic of which lesion?
• What are the three categories of cardiomyopathy, and which is the most common?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by which combination?
• Which of the following is a classic feature of Tetralogy of Fallot?
• How soon should BP be reassessed after starting or changing a BP medication?
• What is the most useful test in the clinical diagnosis of heart failure?
• An EKG shows a regular heart rate of about 200 bpm with a narrow QRS complex. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• Limb ischemia due to arterial embolism presents with which classic signs known as the six P's?
• What histologic changes are seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• The most common cause of an atrial septal defect, according to the material, is which?
• Chest pain relieved by sitting up and leaning forward is most consistent with which condition?
• Which position optimizes auscultation of both aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis?
• Which of the following is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
• What valvular disorder is most commonly associated with Marfan's Syndrome?
• Tetralogy of Fallot is categorized as which type of congenital heart disease?
• Which feature of Tetralogy of Fallot contributes to decreased pulmonary blood flow due to obstruction of the right ventricular outflow tract?
• A harsh, blowing, pansystolic murmur heard at the apex indicates which valvular disease?
• What is the definitive treatment for cardiac tamponade?
• For dental prophylaxis in at-risk patients prior to dental procedures, which regimen is recommended?
• Which condition is defined by chest pain or discomfort during activity or emotional stress with previously stable symptoms that become more frequent or occur at rest?
• Osler nodes are an example of which Duke criterion category?
• Diffuse ST elevations in almost all ECG leads are most consistent with which diagnosis?
• Which cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with intermittent left ventricular outflow tract obstruction in about one third of cases?
• Which condition commonly presents with jaw claudication and an extremely elevated ESR?
• Infection of normal valves with a virulent organism such as Staphylococcus aureus is most consistent with which form of infective endocarditis?
• If the AV node is pacing the heart, what is the typical heart rate range?
• A midsystolic ejection click heard best at the apex suggests which condition?
• In evaluating suspected CAD, which test is considered definitive?
• Which is the most important complication of giant cell arteritis?
• Fixed splitting of the second heart sound is a classic finding in which congenital defect?
• Main etiologies of aortic stenosis include:
• On ECG, which pattern is described as gradually lengthening PR intervals with a block that eventually leads to a dropped QRS?
• Osler nodes are best described as which of the following?
• Which chamber is most affected in cardiomyopathies?
• The most common cause of acute pericarditis is which?
• Ulcers from venous insufficiency are painful or painless?
• Which drug decreases intestinal absorption of cholesterol?